This is a WAG / theory that you may want to test. You mention that once finished goods is created the inventory is transferred out to a warehouse for sale. Is the transfer recorded using an inventory transaction entry? If so, if the cost used in the transfer out is different than the cost used when the item was received into the source warehouse there would be a variance... For example if there was a quantity 1 of item abc at $1.05 in warehouse 000 and quantity 1 of item abc is transferred to warehouse 999 using a cost of $1.00 there would be $.05 value remaining in warehouse 000. Not really a value because there would be no quantity left in warehouse 000 but an orphaned value.... 0 qty, but a $.05 value.