Sage 100

This is probably a moldy topic, but can someone explain Sage's logic to me? Client posts AR invoices w/ invoice date 12/31/2013, posting date 12/31/2014. Oops. They post credit memos to back them out using invoice date 12/31/2013, posting date 12/31/2014, and applying to the original invoice. They should wash, right? They run an aging at 12/31/2013, and the invoices show up with a balance. WTF? So, the ""fix"" is to run the aging and select to include future transactions. Why? I grew up thinking that the aging was only looking at invoice dates, but apparently not.

The other work around, if you know in advance, is to post the credits without applying them and then applying them in cash receipts in the correct period. Unfortunately, for whatever reason, the logic is that the application date is based on the transaction date (eg: posting date). I know it has something to do with the way cash receipts are applied and that they only really have the transaction date. Or better answer: lazy programming.

Yes, I've run into this a dozen times - it has to do with the posting date on the payments. The invoice date is used from AR_OpenInvoice table but payments are pulled from AR_transactionPaymentHistory table which is keyed on the posting date. If it is only a few invoices I have gone in and adjusted the dates in AR_TransactionPaymentHistory table using DFDM. But be careful as you are changing one of the Key fields and you have to remove the old key or you end up with duplicate payments. Removing the old key is not for the faint of heart. Running the aging to include future dates is a much safer answer.